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Matthew 12:40

Discussion in 'General Talk' started by rstrats, Apr 21, 2014.

  1. rstrats

    rstrats New Member

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    CoreIssue,

    re: "The question is irrelevant to the issues since a whole or portion of 3 days did occur."

    If you're referring to my question in post #19 then it is absolutely relevant. The question was in reply to your attempted analogy in post #18. The only way your example in post #18 could be analogous to the missing night of Matthew 12:40 is if it showed where a calendar day was counted as a calendar day when no part of the calendar day had occurred.
     
  2. CoreIssue

    CoreIssue Administrator Staff Member

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    What missing part of a day? Using which calendar, Hebrew or Roman?

    Late Friday the cross, one day. Saturday, two days and early Sunday three days.

    There is no requirement for a full 72 hours.
     
  3. rstrats

    rstrats New Member

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    CoreIssue,

    re: "What missing part of a day?"

    In reference to what? I don't understand what you are asking.



    re: "Using which calendar, Hebrew or Roman?

    Let's say the Hebrew, but I don't see what difference it makes.




    re: "There is no requirement for a full 72 hours."

    Perhaps not, but there is a requirement that 3 night times be involved.
     
  4. CoreIssue

    CoreIssue Administrator Staff Member

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    First of all, we need to look at the context of the verse and the meaning of night as used.
    1. Now look at Jonah 1. There night is defined as:
    In both they were was compare to being in the pit, earth, etc.That is figurative usage.

    As well, in both definitions, 'night' has figurative meanings as well.

    Can your prove the definition you are using is the one used in both verses? No.

    Just like with Day of the Lord is not a 24 your day, but a thousand years.

    Unless you want to say the Bible is wrong, your usage of the word is wrong.

    As a wild throw out, Christ was dead on Friday, Saturday and Sunday. That is three days on the calendar and three nights in death.

    We simply do not know the meaning that was used. Nor do I see that God has to explain it to us.
     
  5. rstrats

    rstrats New Member

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    With another new year, maybe someone new looking in will know of examples as requested in the OP and clarified in further posts. And again, remember that the purpose of this topic is not to discuss how long the Messiah was in the heart of the earth. As stated, there are other topics that do that. However, there are some who say that Matthew 12:40 is using common Jewish idiomatic language to try to explain the missing 3rd night, which would have to be the case with a 6th day of the week crucifixion/1st day of the week resurrection. But in order to legitimately say that it was employing common, idiomatic/figure of speech/colloquial language, one would have to know of other instances where a daytime or a night time was predicted to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime or no part of the night time could occur. I am simply looking for some of those instances, scriptural or otherwise.
     
  6. CoreIssue

    CoreIssue Administrator Staff Member

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    Already been discussed in detail.
     
  7. rstrats

    rstrats New Member

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    CoreIssue,
    re: "Already been discussed in detail."

    But the discussion has been about issues not asked for in the OP or its clarification in subsequent posts. The core issue of this topic concerns the assertion by some that Matthew 12:40 is using common idiomatic/figure of speech/colloquial language. I am simply asking them for examples to support that assertion of commonality.
     
  8. CoreIssue

    CoreIssue Administrator Staff Member

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    The issue of how time was and is viewed was dealt with.

    You cannot produce any examples to the contrary.

    As long as how time was dealt with is understood your question is irrelevant.
     
    Last edited: Feb 14, 2017
  9. rstrats

    rstrats New Member

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    Since it's been awhile, someone new looking in may know of examples.
     
  10. rstrats

    rstrats New Member

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    CoreIssue,
    re: "As long as how time was dealt with is understood your question is irrelevant."



    So why do you think that so far no examples have been provided to show that a daytime or a night time was forecast to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime or not of the night time could have occurred?
     
  11. CoreIssue

    CoreIssue Administrator Staff Member

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    I disagree. Jonah, in example.
     
  12. rstrats

    rstrats New Member

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    CoreIssue,
    re: "I disagree. Jonah, in example."



    How is Jonah an example where a daytime or a night time was said to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime or no part of the night time could have occurred?
     
  13. CTZonEdit

    CTZonEdit Site Administrator Staff Member

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    Let get to the real issue here rstrats cause you going to get called out right now.

    Tell us why since 2009 you continually go into Christian forums, ask the same question over and over again, get the same biblical answers, but continue on?
    Something is not right here and its going to stop. You continue to make unproven claims about the Savior, causing doubt where there is none and that agenda is going to stop right now.

    Explain your agenda and provide evidence to the contrary as CI requested for your own argumentation or move on.
     
  14. rstrats

    rstrats New Member

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    CTZ,
    re: "Tell us why since 2009 you continually go into Christian forums, ask the same question over and over again, get the same biblical answers, but continue on?"

    It's because none of the answers are responsive to my request. The Messiah said that 3 night times would be involved with His time in the "heart of the earth". However, there are those who believe that the Messiah died on the 6th day of the week and who think that the "heart of the earth" is referring to the tomb or at the earliest to the time between the leaving of His spirit from His body and His resurrection on the 1st day of the week. But this belief allows for only 2 night times to be involved. To reconcile this discrepancy some say that the Messiah was using common Jewish figure of speech/colloquial language. I am simply asking for examples to support that assertion of commonality; i.e., examples where a daytime or a night time was forecast to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime or no part of the night time could have occurred.



    re: "Something is not right here and its going to stop."

    I wish it would, but so far the folks who have been responding keep writing about different issues.



    re: "You continue to make unproven claims about the Savior..."

    What????? Where on earth are you getting that idea? Just exactly what have I said that would elicit such a scurrilous accusation?
     
  15. Willy

    Willy Pro Poster

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    Howdy,

    I would imagine the calendar used and the time keeping used was what was being used at that time in Israel, … so most likely written in language that made it easy to understand when the weekly Sabbath started and ended and also when the Passover, Preparation day etc. started and ended at that time.

    Starting with Genesis chapter 1, when a day is defined as evening and morning, there is no evidence that that concept changed to anything different and considering the strict dealings between God and Israel with regards to times for feasts, Sabbaths etc. it would seem to me that to entertain any other way of considering time could lead to certain imminent destruction. Assertion of commonality as you put it kept people alive as they dealt with a righteous Holy God.

    Are we not dealing with two distinct Holy events in that week?

    :wow:
     
  16. rstrats

    rstrats New Member

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    Willy,

    I'm afraid your comments are with regard to different issues from the topic issue.
     
  17. Willy

    Willy Pro Poster

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    You should move along ...
     

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