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Sid
06-09-2007, 09:09 AM
I ran across this little nugget and wanted to share it and get some other opinions on it.






Lord's Prayer in Old Church Slavonic clearly states: Lukavago (the Evil One) not evil.

For Orthodox Christian, Lord's Parayer does not address evil as such, but clearly ask The Lord to deliver us from the Devil (Evil One, Lukavago), because Devil is an enemy of man from the beginning, the liar and father of the lie (John, 8.44), one who blinds people and leads them from an illusion to illusion, in personal and societal life.


Why The Evil One became "evil" in RC and Protestant Lord's prayer is beyond my capacity of understanding. And the error in translation is not only in English.



http://www.orthodoxepubsoc.org/images/lordsprayer.gif


Can someone address this issue with competence? Does Devil got "lost in translation" before or after A.D. 1054?




LINK (http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/f-religion/1600236/posts)

CoreIssue
06-09-2007, 11:32 AM
I didn't read it all.

But two points jumped out immediately:
1. The Bible played on role in this. It was all RCC law, dictates and doctrines.
2. It sounded like a coven of witches and sorcerers squabbling over the proper format of an incantation.

kay-gee
06-09-2007, 10:05 PM
just curious. What is the signifigance of 1054 AD?

Sid
06-09-2007, 10:10 PM
just curious. What is the signifigance of 1054 AD?


Kay-gee:

1054AD was the date when the Roman Catholic Church left the Eastern Orthodox Church.

Jessie
08-05-2007, 03:56 PM
I didn't read it all.

But two points jumped out immediately:
1. The Bible played on role in this. It was all RCC law, dictates and doctrines.
2. It sounded like a coven of witches and sorcerers squabbling over the proper format of an incantation.


:scratch: