Sid
06-09-2007, 09:09 AM
I ran across this little nugget and wanted to share it and get some other opinions on it.
Lord's Prayer in Old Church Slavonic clearly states: Lukavago (the Evil One) not evil.
For Orthodox Christian, Lord's Parayer does not address evil as such, but clearly ask The Lord to deliver us from the Devil (Evil One, Lukavago), because Devil is an enemy of man from the beginning, the liar and father of the lie (John, 8.44), one who blinds people and leads them from an illusion to illusion, in personal and societal life.
Why The Evil One became "evil" in RC and Protestant Lord's prayer is beyond my capacity of understanding. And the error in translation is not only in English.
http://www.orthodoxepubsoc.org/images/lordsprayer.gif
Can someone address this issue with competence? Does Devil got "lost in translation" before or after A.D. 1054?
LINK (http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/f-religion/1600236/posts)
Lord's Prayer in Old Church Slavonic clearly states: Lukavago (the Evil One) not evil.
For Orthodox Christian, Lord's Parayer does not address evil as such, but clearly ask The Lord to deliver us from the Devil (Evil One, Lukavago), because Devil is an enemy of man from the beginning, the liar and father of the lie (John, 8.44), one who blinds people and leads them from an illusion to illusion, in personal and societal life.
Why The Evil One became "evil" in RC and Protestant Lord's prayer is beyond my capacity of understanding. And the error in translation is not only in English.
http://www.orthodoxepubsoc.org/images/lordsprayer.gif
Can someone address this issue with competence? Does Devil got "lost in translation" before or after A.D. 1054?
LINK (http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/f-religion/1600236/posts)